(05-04-2013 02:53 AM)Vicious Wrote: (05-03-2013 11:46 PM)SU27 Wrote: hey vicious, how about you start with trying to mount an intelligent counterpoint instead of just giving up?
An intelligent counterpoint would require an intelligent point.
ok great, i guess this is why you wrote such a long response to my comment. I'm flattered.
(05-04-2013 02:53 AM)Vicious Wrote: - The only reason the US could deploy A-bombs on Japan was because they had total air superiority. How would you achieve that against a a hypothetical Germany/Soviet threat that controlled most of the European continent?
Easy, the same way they did it with Japan: through the use of aircraft carriers, and in the alternative, an island hopping campaign. Later on - although unnecessary - they could have used other later developments such as long range bomber aircraft, which were being improved at an incredibly rapid pace by the 1940s, Submarine Launched Ballistic Missiles (SBLM's), and Long Range Ballistic Missiles (ICBM's).
(05-04-2013 02:53 AM)Vicious Wrote: - The A-bombs where highly experimental weapons and required immense resources. Their numbers were very limited by the ability to extract U-235 from uranium, a process that wasn't properly refined until the 50's. There was no stockpile to speak of before that. That the US could produce "tens of thousands" of nuclear weapons (strategic) prior to the late 50's is ludicrous.
Expiremental? So the bombs dropped on Nagasaki and Hiroshima were only "experimental"? And uranium wasn't properly refined? It was refined more than properly enough to build at least two atomic bombs, the ones that obliterated Nagasaki and Hiroshima! The more you write, the more ridiculous your arguments become. The fact of the matter is, atomic weapons stopped being in the experimental phase the moment they were actually used on a population. The moment they were proven to work by actually wiping out entire cities, they stopped being experimental. And the US already had hundreds if not thousands of nuclear bombs at its disposal in the late 1940's. They had also conducted dozens of nuclear tests in the deserts of Nevada and Arizona. This is not "ludicrous" as you claim, but historical fact. No matter how badly you want to try and win this argument this fact will not change.
(05-04-2013 02:53 AM)Vicious Wrote: - How is it that "The US easily would have easily won any WWII battle against every other country in the world stacked together, if only because they were the only country armed with nuclear weapons."
A) When the US participated in conventional battles that they lost or held only taxing victories in?
B) Did not have access to working A-bombs until late 1945?
The above doesn't make any sense.
To people who have the ability to reason and make logical conclusions, it makes total sense. The US built the atom bomb in 1945. Whether they won or lost every single battle of WWII makes not a shred of difference. The point is, by 1946-47 they had the ability to produce hundreds of atomic bombs that would have made it easy for the US to destroy Germany and the Soviet Union just as easily as they had destroyed Japan, especially after the war exhaustion faced by the Germans and Russians in fighting each other.
(05-04-2013 02:53 AM)Vicious Wrote: - Using A-bombs in Europe would have been politically irredeemable. There was major resistance in the US, even in the house and senate against even going to war with Germany. Every so often I have to remind people that the US didn't enter the war until Hitler foolishly declared war on them.
Who says this? Are you kidding? This "fact" exists only in your head! The entire United States was ecstatic to go to war against both Germany and Japan. This is very well known, all you have to do is look at the immense sacrifice the American public made in giving up common luxuries in order to support the war effort. Never in US history was a president as popular as FDR was when he was leading the country to war against both Germany and Japan. Americans - 15 million of them - happily volunteered to go to either Europe or the Pacific to fight both of the major axis nations. And even before the Hitler declaration of war, American public and government opinion was heavily on the side of Britain - because of the unrestricted German UBoat campaign in the North Atlantic. Also, there was a sense of Anglo-American brotherhood that allowed the US government to pursue a course of very pro-British policy, such has providing the British govt with loans and the British navy with 50 destroyers to help strengthen that country's defence. Although it's true there was a sense of isolationism, this went out the window the moment Japan attacked Pearl Harbor.
(05-04-2013 02:53 AM)Vicious Wrote: The only way I can interpret what you wrote is as one big what-if in the event that the US was backed into a corner in 1945, then the US could possibly have used A-bombs to a larger extent to negotiate a peace (as they did in Japan when they were already defeated). But to use nuclear weapons to "win" anything? Just about every military strategist since the advent of nuclear weapons has discarded such notions. In the end, war is about economics and nuclear weapons are simply anathema to that.
This simply is not true. Provide a single quote by a single expert on nuclear war who says that the US would not have bombed several countries in the late 1940's if it came down to a matter of national survival. I guarantee you cannot do it, because such a comment on such a period was never made. I guarantee you, the US would have dropped atomic bombs even if it meant saving American lives, never mind if it meant national survival. The US dropped atomic bombs on Japan not because its national survival was at stake, but because it simply wanted to save American lives. For the American president, just saving lives (and not national survival) was more than enough reason to drop the bomb.
Vicious, what you are confusing is the US monopoly on atomic weapons in the late 1940's with what later became known as the MAD theory (Mutually Assured Destruction). MAD only applies when other countries also came into possession of atomic weapons, but this did not happen until 1949. The US, between 1945 and 1949, had a monopoly on the use of atomic weapons. And if the US had chosen to strike first, they would have taken out the nuclear ready capability of all of their enemies.
(05-04-2013 02:53 AM)Vicious Wrote: As I have said many times on this forum and also in this thread. The US did "win" the WWII, but not from its military progress but from the post-war financial aid that solidified its influence over large parts of Europe for the duration of the Cold War. Had the US lost control and made extensive use of A-bombs they would have stood alone during the Cold War, shut out from Europe.
So you're saying the US won the war by providing funds AFTER the war had actually ended?? This is preposterous reasoning on your part! How could the US win a war AFTER it had already been won?!
The truth is, the US was the biggest winner of the war, and they won by providing vast amounts of money and supplies to the UK and the Soviet Union, including 100,000 tanks and trucks to the Russians. In 1945, at the end of WWII, the US had the world's largest and best army, the largest air force, the largest navy, and in addition to all this
WAS THE ONLY COUNTRY ON EARTH THAT HAD NUCLEAR WEAPONS. Unlike all the other major countries in the world: China, Japan, Germany, USSR, and France, the US was the ONLY country that was not devastated by the war. Its economic and industrial output, in 1945, far outstripped that of all the other countries of the world COMBINED.
(05-04-2013 02:53 AM)Vicious Wrote: Unrelated I found this amusing:
(05-03-2013 11:46 PM)SU27 Wrote: haha this is without doubt as close as the two of you will ever get to the ivy league
Followed by:
(05-04-2013 01:06 AM)SU27 Wrote: I never brought up that I was Ivy League in this thread, only you did as anyone reading this thread can easily see. I did mention in another thread this fact, but it had nothing to do with being superior me mentioning it served as context as to why certain women reacted to me in certain ways. I never ever used it to disparage you or express superiority to you, this inferiority complex is something that you invented in your own head so I dont know why you're reacting so negatively.
Cute. I'm really convinced.
Apparently you were unable to read the portion of my response where I wrote this:
I did react with a zing but only after you attacked me first, for no apparent reason. Anyways, I'm not the one who brought up "ivy league" in this thread, you did. Perhaps it is you who suffers from a marked lack of reading comprehension skills?
hmm... you know vicious, it looks like emancipator isnt the only one of the two of you who has poor reading comprehension skills. But I admire your efforts to "re-edit" my post in order to achieve false conclusions. This is no doubt the same way you are propping up all of your other false conclusions, through the use of faulty and "re-edited" reasoning.